A -year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents because he has been refusing to walk since this morning. The parents report that he had a subjective fever at home yesterday but otherwise has been healthy. His immunizations are up to date. His temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and respirations are . Physical examination reveals a distressed child who cries when the right leg is touched. The right hip is held in a position of flexion, abduction, and external rotation. Any attempted passive range of motion of the right hip elicits severe pain. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of and an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of . Radiographs of the pelvis and bilateral hips demonstrate no fractures or structural abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Ultrasound-guided arthrocentesisAnswer
- BInitiation of intravenous ceftriaxone and vancomycin
- CMagnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the right hip
- DObservation and administration of oral ibuprofen
- EImmediate open arthrotomy and joint washout