A 58-year-old man comes to the urgent care clinic complaining of severe left knee pain that awoke him from sleep. He has a medical history of hypertension and heart failure with preserved ejection fraction, for which he takes lisinopril and hydrochlorothiazide. His temperature is (). Physical examination reveals a swollen, erythematous, and exquisitely tender left knee with limited range of motion. There are no other joint abnormalities. Laboratory testing reveals a serum uric acid level of (reference: ). A diagnostic arthrocentesis is performed; synovial fluid analysis shows a leukocyte count of with neutrophils, and the presence of needle-shaped, negatively birefringent crystals. Gram stain reveals no organisms. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Intra-articular injection of a glucocorticoidAnswer
- BIntravenous administration of vancomycin and ceftriaxone
- CMeasurement of serum antinuclear antibody levels
- DAdministration of intravenous furosemide
- EPostponement of gout-specific therapy until the serum uric acid level becomes elevated