A 38-year-old woman presents to the outpatient psychiatry clinic seeking help for severe distress. Ten months ago, she was the victim of a violent home invasion. Since then, she experiences recurrent, intrusive nightmares of the event, avoids being alone in her house, and feels constantly "on guard." She states she feels emotionally detached from her husband. Her past psychiatric history includes a hospitalization at age 22 for a week-long period of decreased need for sleep, rapid speech, and grandiose delusions, followed by a severe depressive crash. Three weeks ago, a primary care physician started her on phenelzine for her low mood. She read online that paroxetine is effective for trauma survivors and asks if she can start taking it today to help with her nightmares. Which of the following are the most appropriate actions in the management of this patient's current presentation? (Select 2)
- Initiate exposure-based trauma-focused psychotherapyAnswer
- Advise the patient that combining paroxetine with her current medication risks life-threatening autonomic instability and neuromuscular hyperactivityAnswer
- CPrescribe paroxetine immediately to aggressively target her intrusive trauma symptoms
- DDiscontinue phenelzine, complete a 14-day washout period, and then initiate paroxetine monotherapy
- EReclassify her diagnosis as schizophreniform disorder based on her history of delusions and current emotional detachment