A -year-old man is evaluated in the hospital on day of an admission for a severe flare of ulcerative colitis. On admission, stool studies were negative for Clostridioides difficile toxin and routine enteric pathogens, and he was started on intravenous methylprednisolone. Despite days of high-dose corticosteroid therapy, he continues to have to bloody bowel movements daily accompanied by abdominal cramps. Vital signs show a temperature of (), heart rate of /min, and blood pressure of . Physical examination reveals a non-distended abdomen with left lower quadrant tenderness, but no guarding or rebound. Laboratory studies show a hemoglobin of , leukocyte count of , and C-reactive protein of . Abdominal radiography reveals colonic mucosal thickening without colonic dilation. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Flexible sigmoidoscopy with biopsyAnswer
- BIntravenous infliximab therapy
- CTotal abdominal colectomy with end ileostomy
- DCytomegalovirus serologic testing
- EIntravenous piperacillin-tazobactam