A -year-old woman is evaluated in the hospital for severe shortness of breath. She has a history of diffuse large B-cell lymphoma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Two days ago, she underwent uncomplicated placement of a right internal jugular venous port. Today, she was admitted for symptomatic anemia and was prescribed two units of packed red blood cells. Toward the end of the second unit's infusion, she acutely developed dyspnea, orthopnea, and a cough productive of pink, frothy sputum.
Her temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and respirations are . Pulse oximetry shows on room air.
Physical examination reveals elevated jugular venous pressure. The port site is clean and without erythema. Cardiopulmonary auscultation reveals an S3 gallop, bilateral basilar crackles, and scattered expiratory wheezes.
Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin: (up from before transfusion)
Leukocyte count:
Platelet count:
Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP):
Creatinine:
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Discontinue the transfusion and administer intravenous furosemideAnswer
- BDiscontinue the transfusion and administer inhaled albuterol and systemic glucocorticoids
- CDiscontinue the transfusion and administer intravenous vancomycin and cefepime
- DDiscontinue the transfusion and obtain a duplex ultrasound of the lower extremities
- EDiscontinue the transfusion and initiate disciplinary action against the administering nurse