A 29-year-old man comes to the psychiatry clinic seeking help for distressing mental images. For the past 3 months, he has experienced recurrent, intrusive thoughts of violently harming strangers. He finds these images horrifying and states, "I would never do such a thing, but I just can't stop the thoughts." To temporarily relieve his anxiety, he taps his forehead exactly 15 times whenever an image appears. His psychiatric history is notable for treatment-resistant depression, for which he was prescribed phenelzine 2 years ago with a good response. A review of his electronic medical record reveals a 5-day episode last year characterized by grandiosity, a decreased need for sleep, rapid speech, and hypersexuality. The patient is employed as an accountant. His manager recently left a voicemail at the clinic requesting a medical update because the patient has been taking frequent breaks. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Refer the patient for exposure and response prevention therapyAnswer
- BDiscontinue phenelzine, wait 14 days, and initiate fluoxetine monotherapy
- CAdd clomipramine to the patient's current daily medication regimen
- DDiagnose schizophreniform disorder due to the 3-month duration of symptoms
- EReturn the manager's phone call to state that the patient poses no physical threat