A 59-year-old man with a history of alcoholic cirrhosis and esophageal varices is hospitalized due to generalized abdominal pain and a low-grade fever. On admission, his temperature is 38.1 °C (100.6 °F), blood pressure is 105/65 mmHg, and heart rate is 98/min. Physical examination reveals scleral icterus, spider angiomata, and a distended abdomen with shifting dullness and diffuse mild tenderness.
A diagnostic paracentesis yields cloudy ascitic fluid with a leukocyte count of 1,200/mm³ and a neutrophil count of 950/mm³. He is immediately started on intravenous albumin and empiric intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam.
On hospital day 3, the patient is afebrile and reports significant improvement in his abdominal pain. Ascitic fluid cultures from admission grow *Klebsiella pneumoniae*. Susceptibility testing indicates the isolate is resistant to ampicillin, but susceptible to ceftriaxone, cefotaxime, ciprofloxacin, and piperacillin-tazobactam. Blood cultures show no growth.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the antimicrobial management of this patient?
- De-escalate antimicrobial therapy to intravenous ceftriaxoneAnswer
- BContinue intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam for a total 14-day course
- CEscalate antimicrobial therapy to intravenous meropenem
- DAdd intravenous vancomycin to the current regimen
- EDiscontinue all antimicrobial therapy immediately