A physician evaluates a -year-old man in the emergency department for sudden-onset, excruciating abdominal pain that began hours ago. The patient reports one episode of non-bloody emesis. His medical history includes hypertension, diet-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus, and atrial fibrillation, for which he has been nonadherent to his oral anticoagulant medication for the past several months. Vital signs reveal a temperature of (), an irregularly irregular heart rate of , a respiratory rate of , and a blood pressure of . On physical examination, the abdomen is soft and non-distended; there is mild, diffuse tenderness to deep palpation, but no guarding or rebound tenderness is elicited. Bowel sounds are hypoactive. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of and a markedly elevated serum lactate level of . Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- APlacement of a nasogastric tube and initiation of conservative observation
- BInfusion of intravenous sodium bicarbonate to correct the metabolic acidosis
- Computed tomography angiography of the abdomenAnswer
- DInitiation of intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam as primary definitive therapy
- EAdministration of intravenous furosemide and noninvasive positive pressure ventilation