An ambulance arrives at the emergency department with a 75-year-old male who collapsed at home after a massive episode of hematemesis. His wife states he has been experiencing intermittent lower back pain and low-grade fevers for the past two weeks. His surgical history is significant for an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair with a synthetic graft five years ago. Currently, he is lethargic with cool, clammy extremities. Vital signs show a temperature of 37.2°C (99.0°F), a heart rate of 135/min, and a blood pressure of 74/42 mmHg. Fluid resuscitation with packed red blood cells and crystalloids is underway through two large-bore intravenous lines, but his systolic blood pressure remains below 85 mmHg. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- APerform a multiphase scan of the abdomen and pelvis
- BAdmit for strict bowel rest and serial examinations
- Transfer to the operating room for exploratory laparotomyAnswer
- DAdminister intravenous furosemide and request a bedside echocardiogram
- EInitiate empiric broad-spectrum antibiotics and await blood cultures