A 63-year-old woman comes to the clinic for a routine health maintenance examination. She feels well and has no specific complaints. She underwent natural menopause at age 51 and has had no subsequent vaginal bleeding. Her past medical history is significant for severe, seropositive rheumatoid arthritis, which has been well-controlled for the past five years on a regimen of weekly methotrexate and daily low-dose prednisone ( daily). She has never smoked and consumes alcohol rarely. Her blood pressure is , heart rate is , and BMI is . Her most recent screening mammogram was performed 6 months ago and was normal. She had a screening colonoscopy at age 58, which revealed no polyps or abnormalities. She received the 20-valent pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV20) and the recombinant zoster vaccine series at age 62. Her most recent Pap smear and HPV cotesting at age 61 were negative, following a history of consistently negative cervical screenings. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in preventive care for this patient?
- Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry scanAnswer
- BAdministration of the live-attenuated measles, mumps, and rubella vaccine
- CEndometrial biopsy
- DScreening for ovarian cancer with serum CA-125 and transvaginal ultrasonography
- EScreening for asymptomatic bacteriuria with a urine culture