A 72-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his daughter due to worsening confusion, dizziness, and recurrent spontaneous epistaxis over the past 48 hours. He also reports that his vision has become increasingly blurred. His medical history is notable for hypertension and mild chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. On physical examination, temperature is (), blood pressure is 145/88 mmHg, pulse is 92/min, and respirations are 16/min. Funduscopic examination reveals bilateral retinal hemorrhages and prominently dilated, tortuous retinal veins. Cardiopulmonary examination is unremarkable. Abdominal examination demonstrates a palpable spleen tip 4 cm below the left costal margin.
Laboratory evaluation shows:
| Test | Result |
|---|---|
| Hemoglobin | 8.2 g/dL |
| Mean corpuscular volume | 89 fL |
| Platelets | 140,000 /\mu\text{L} |
| Leukocytes | 6,500 /\mu\text{L} |
| Blood urea nitrogen | 18 mg/dL |
| Creatinine | 1.1 mg/dL |
| Calcium | 9.2 mg/dL |
| Total protein | 11.2 g/dL |
| Albumin | 3.4 g/dL |
Serum protein electrophoresis demonstrates a large monoclonal spike in the gamma region. Subsequent immunofixation confirms the presence of an IgM monoclonal protein.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient's acute symptoms?
- AAdministration of intravenous pamidronate
- BIntravenous administration of furosemide
- CInitiation of empiric vancomycin and cefepime
- Urgent therapeutic plasma exchangeAnswer
- EConsultation for urgent hemodialysis