A 34-year-old woman presents to the clinic accompanied by her sister due to a 4-week history of recurrent, unexpected episodes of intense fear, palpitations, sweating, and chest pain. Each episode peaks within 10 minutes. Because of these attacks, she has stopped going to work and refuses to leave her house, fearing she will be unable to escape if an attack occurs. She has a history of bipolar I disorder, diagnosed after a severe manic episode at age 24, but discontinued her lithium 3 years ago. For the past month, she has also felt profoundly sad, with low energy and hypersomnia. She recently saw another physician who prescribed phenelzine two weeks ago. In the waiting room, the sister pulls the physician aside and asks, 'Is she developing schizophrenia like our mother? I need to know her exact diagnosis.' Vital signs are temperature 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure 128/82 mm Hg, and pulse 108/min. Physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following are appropriate next steps in this patient's management? (Select all that apply)
- Initiate cognitive-behavioral therapyAnswer
- Assessment of serum thyroid-stimulating hormoneAnswer
- CInitiate sertraline monotherapy
- DDisclose the suspected diagnosis to the patient's sister
- EDiscontinue phenelzine and initiate citalopram therapy in 24 hours