A -year-old man with known liver cirrhosis secondary to chronic hepatitis C infection is hospitalized due to an acute onset of fever, diffuse abdominal discomfort, and confusion. Diagnostic paracentesis performed on the day of admission yielded ascitic fluid with an absolute neutrophil count of cells/mm . Consequently, he was initiated on an empiric antimicrobial regimen of intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam and vancomycin.
Now, on his third day in the hospital, his clinical status has markedly improved. He is fully oriented, his temperature is C ( F), and his abdominal pain has subsided. The ascitic fluid cultures from admission demonstrate the growth of *Escherichia coli*. The susceptibility report indicates that this organism is resistant to ampicillin but highly susceptible to ceftriaxone, cefotaxime, and ciprofloxacin.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AMaintain the current regimen of intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam and vancomycin
- BDiscontinue vancomycin but maintain intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- Switch the antimicrobial regimen to intravenous ceftriaxoneAnswer
- DSwitch the antimicrobial regimen to intravenous meropenem
- EAdd intravenous fluconazole to the current antimicrobial regimen