A 68-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of worsening right knee pain, swelling, and fever. He underwent a primary right total knee arthroplasty 3 weeks ago for severe osteoarthritis. His early postoperative course was uncomplicated, and he had been progressing well with physical therapy until the onset of these symptoms. His temperature is 38.9°C (102.0°F), blood pressure is 125/80 mmHg, pulse is 105/min, and respiratory rate is 18/min. Physical examination reveals a markedly swollen, erythematous, and warm right knee. The surgical incision is well-healed with no active drainage. Range of motion is severely limited by pain. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 14,500/mm³ and an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 85 mm/hr. Arthrocentesis of the right knee yields cloudy fluid with a leukocyte count of 45,000/mm³ (90% neutrophils). Gram stain shows Gram-positive cocci in clusters. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- ARemoval of all prosthetic components and placement of an antibiotic-impregnated spacer
- BInitiation of intravenous vancomycin and cefepime without surgical intervention
- Surgical debridement, polyethylene exchange, and retention of the metal componentsAnswer
- DContinuous closed joint irrigation and drainage via percutaneous catheters
- EReassurance, antipyretics, and continuation of routine postoperative physical therapy