A -year-old man with a history of type diabetes mellitus and hypertension is hospitalized due to a -day history of high fever, right upper quadrant abdominal pain, and profound fatigue. On admission, his temperature is (), blood pressure is , and pulse is . Physical examination is notable for hepatomegaly and localized tenderness over the right upper quadrant. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of with a left shift, and an alkaline phosphatase level of . Contrast-enhanced abdominal CT reveals a multiloculated fluid collection in the right hepatic lobe. A chest radiograph demonstrates a small, right-sided pleural effusion without infiltrates.
The patient undergoes successful CT-guided percutaneous drain placement for the hepatic collection, and empiric intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam and vancomycin are initiated. Three days later, he is hemodynamically stable and his fever has resolved. The right-sided pleural effusion is unchanged, and he has no respiratory distress. Abscess fluid and blood cultures both grow *Streptococcus intermedius*. Susceptibility testing shows the organism is susceptible to penicillin, ceftriaxone, and cefepime, but resistant to clindamycin.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Discontinue current antimicrobials and initiate intravenous ceftriaxoneAnswer
- BContinue intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam and discontinue vancomycin
- CDiscontinue current antimicrobials and initiate oral clindamycin
- DRemove the percutaneous hepatic drain and observe
- EPerform a diagnostic right-sided thoracentesis