A -year-old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus is evaluated on hospital day for management of a pyogenic liver abscess. She originally presented with high fever, malaise, and severe right upper quadrant abdominal pain. Imaging on admission revealed a thick-walled fluid collection in the right hepatic lobe. She was started on empiric intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam, and a percutaneous drain was placed by interventional radiology.
The patient's clinical status has significantly improved. She has been afebrile for hours, and her leukocyte count has decreased from to . The percutaneous drain output has been less than over the last hours. Abscess fluid cultures drawn during placement show pure growth of *Klebsiella pneumoniae*. Susceptibility testing demonstrates the organism is susceptible to ceftriaxone, ciprofloxacin, and piperacillin-tazobactam, but resistant to ampicillin.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Remove the percutaneous drain and transition to oral ciprofloxacinAnswer
- BRemove the percutaneous drain and continue intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- CRemove the percutaneous drain and transition to intravenous ceftriaxone
- DLeave the percutaneous drain in place and transition to oral ciprofloxacin
- ERemove the percutaneous drain and discontinue all antimicrobial therapy