An emergency medical services team transports a 71-year-old man to the acute care bay after he suddenly collapsed at a grocery store. Prior to collapsing, he complained of severe, tearing pain in his lower back and abdomen. His past medical history includes hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and a 45-pack-year smoking history. Upon arrival, he is lethargic but arousable. His temperature is 36.5°C (97.7°F), blood pressure is 74/42 mm Hg, pulse is 128/min, and respirations are 24/min. The patient's skin is pale, cold, and clammy. Physical examination of the abdomen reveals a prominent, expansile, pulsatile mass measuring approximately 7 cm in width. The abdomen is otherwise soft without peritoneal signs. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AComputed tomography angiography of the abdomen
- BIntravenous administration of esmolol
- Immediate surgical explorationAnswer
- DBedside abdominal ultrasonography
- ELarge-volume crystalloid resuscitation and intensive care admission