A 68-year-old woman is evaluated in the hospital for new-onset skin lesions. Six days ago, she was admitted for a right lower extremity deep vein thrombosis and started on a continuous intravenous unfractionated heparin infusion and oral warfarin. Two days ago, her platelet count was noted to have decreased from on admission to . Heparin was immediately discontinued, a serotonin release assay was sent, and an intravenous argatroban infusion was started. Warfarin was continued. Today, she complains of significant pain over her abdomen and both thighs. Physical examination reveals well-demarcated, erythematous, and purpuric lesions with central areas of black necrosis in these regions. Vital signs are stable.
Laboratory results today:
Hemoglobin:
Platelet count:
Prothrombin time (PT):
Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT):
INR:
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Discontinue warfarin and administer intravenous vitamin KAnswer
- BContinue current therapy and provide local wound care
- CDiscontinue argatroban and initiate fondaparinux
- DDiscontinue all anticoagulation and place an inferior vena cava filter
- EAdminister intravenous methylprednisolone and diphenhydramine