A 26-year-old man comes to the clinic for a follow-up visit. Three weeks ago, he was diagnosed with major depressive disorder after presenting with a 6-week history of depressed mood, anhedonia, significant weight loss, and severe fatigue. At his initial evaluation, a comprehensive psychiatric history confirmed the absence of any past episodes of abnormally elevated mood, impulsivity, or decreased need for sleep. He was started on sertraline 50 mg daily. Today, the patient reports that his sleep has improved slightly, but he still feels sad most days and lacks the energy to resume his usual hobbies. He denies suicidal ideation, auditory hallucinations, or racing thoughts. His vital signs and physical examination are unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Continue sertraline at the current dosage and reassess in 2 to 3 weeksAnswer
- BAdd phenelzine to the current regimen to augment the antidepressant response
- CDiscontinue sertraline and initiate monotherapy with a mood stabilizer
- DReclassify the diagnosis as schizophreniform disorder based on symptom duration
- EContact the patient's next-of-kin to establish a surrogate decision-maker