Question

Difficulty: MediumDepressive Disorders

For each patient vignette describing a mood-related presentation, select the most appropriate primary treatment modality or specific medication.

  • A 78-year-old retired architect presenting with profound psychomotor retardation, delusions that his organs are rotting, and complete refusal of food and water for five days.Electroconvulsive therapy
  • A 54-year-old office manager who developed persistent anhedonia, early morning awakenings, and severe guilt three weeks after surviving an acute anterior myocardial infarction.Sertraline
  • A 31-year-old freelance writer with current debilitating hypersomnia and low mood, whose medical records indicate a previous four-day episode of pressured speech and decreased need for sleep.Quetiapine
  • A 28-year-old physical therapist with a new-onset major depressive episode who explicitly requests a medication that will not cause weight gain or sexual dysfunction.Bupropion

Answer

The correct matches align specific clinical presentations of depression with their evidence-based treatments: severe inanition/psychosis with electroconvulsive therapy, post-myocardial infarction status with sertraline, bipolar depression with quetiapine, and concern for sexual side effects with bupropion.
Each match represents the standard of care for a specific depressive presentation. Electroconvulsive therapy is rapidly acting and life-saving for psychotic depression with inanition. Sertraline has the best cardiovascular safety profile for post-myocardial infarction patients. Quetiapine effectively treats bipolar depression without the risk of a manic switch associated with SSRI monotherapy. Bupropion is a norepinephrine-dopamine reuptake inhibitor that lacks the sexual dysfunction and weight gain typical of SSRIs.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the 78-year-old patient's presentation.
Identified psychotic depression with life-threatening food and fluid refusal.
Dictates the need for a rapid, definitive intervention rather than waiting weeks for pharmacotherapy to take effect.
2
Evaluate the 54-year-old patient's medical history.
Noted the very recent acute anterior myocardial infarction.
Cardiovascular safety is the primary limiting factor when selecting an antidepressant for this patient population.
3
Review the 31-year-old patient's psychiatric history.
Identified a past hypomanic episode (4 days of decreased sleep and pressured speech).
Changes the diagnosis from unipolar to bipolar depression, fundamentally altering the pharmacologic approach.
4
Consider the 28-year-old patient's specific treatment preferences.
Identified the requirement to avoid weight gain and sexual dysfunction.
Guides the selection away from standard SSRIs toward an atypical agent with a different receptor profile.

Key Concept

Tailoring management of depressive disorders to patient-specific psychiatric comorbidities, medical history, and medication side effect profiles.
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