A -year-old man with a history of alcohol-related cirrhosis and major depressive disorder is hospitalized for worsening abdominal distension and fever. His home medications include spironolactone, furosemide, lactulose, and citalopram. On admission, his temperature is °C (°F) and blood pressure is mmHg. Physical examination reveals shifting dullness and trace bilateral pedal edema.
Diagnostic paracentesis yields ascitic fluid with a leukocyte count of /mm³ ( neutrophils). Arterial blood gas analysis on room air reveals:
pH:
pCO : mmHg
HCO : mEq/L
The patient is empirically started on intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam and vancomycin, and he receives intravenous albumin on hospital day 1. On hospital day 3, his temperature has decreased to °C (°F) and his abdominal pain has resolved. The ascitic fluid culture from admission grows *Escherichia coli* that is resistant to ampicillin but susceptible to ceftriaxone, cefepime, piperacillin-tazobactam, and ciprofloxacin. Blood cultures show no growth.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Discontinue the current antibiotics and begin intravenous ceftriaxoneAnswer
- BContinue the current regimen of intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam and vancomycin
- CDiscontinue vancomycin and continue intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- DAdminister an intravenous sodium bicarbonate infusion
- EDiscontinue the current antibiotics and begin intravenous linezolid and ciprofloxacin