A -year-old woman, who is at weeks gestation in her first pregnancy, presents to the psychiatric clinic with a -week history of overwhelming sadness, excessive sleeping up to a day, and a sensation that her arms and legs are "weighed down by lead." She experiences daily crying spells and profound guilt over her lack of excitement regarding the pregnancy. She mentions that her primary care physician prescribed fluoxetine weeks ago, but she discontinued it yesterday because she felt it was completely ineffective. Vital signs are within normal limits. Laboratory studies show a thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level of (normal non-pregnant: -) and a free thyroxine (T4) level of (normal: -). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Assess for a history of episodes characterized by racing thoughts and excessive energyAnswer
- BInitiate sertraline therapy to replace the discontinued medication
- CPrescribe phenelzine to specifically target her atypical depressive symptoms
- DReassure her that her emotional lability and fatigue are expected pregnancy adaptations
- EConsult endocrinology for the treatment of subclinical hyperthyroidism