A 51-year-old man is currently hospitalized for the management of acute complicated diverticulitis. Four days ago, he presented with severe left lower quadrant abdominal pain, and a computed tomography scan revealed a pericolic abscess. The abscess was successfully managed with computed tomography-guided percutaneous drainage. Due to a documented history of extended-spectrum beta-lactamase (ESBL) urinary tract infections, he was empirically started on intravenous meropenem upon admission.
Today, the patient reports feeling well and his abdominal pain has completely resolved. He is tolerating a regular diet without nausea. His temperature is (), blood pressure is , and pulse is . His leukocyte count has decreased from at admission to . The percutaneous drain output has been negligible for the past 24 hours, and the catheter was removed this morning.
The finalized abscess fluid culture demonstrates heavy growth of *Escherichia coli* and *Bacteroides fragilis*. Susceptibility testing of the *E. coli* isolate reveals sensitivity to amoxicillin-clavulanate, ceftriaxone, and ciprofloxacin, with no evidence of ESBL production.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the pharmacological management of this patient?
- AMaintain inpatient admission to complete a 14-day course of intravenous meropenem
- BSwitch the antimicrobial regimen to intravenous cefepime and intravenous metronidazole
- Discharge the patient with a prescription for oral amoxicillin-clavulanateAnswer
- DDischarge the patient with prescriptions for oral ciprofloxacin and oral linezolid
- EDischarge the patient with prescriptions for oral amoxicillin-clavulanate and oral vancomycin