A 35-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 3-day history of watery diarrhea, mild abdominal cramping, and nausea. She reports 4 to 5 loose bowel movements daily but denies fever, bloody stools, recent travel, or sick contacts. Her only medication is a daily oral contraceptive pill. Temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure is 118/76 mmHg, and pulse is 82/min. The abdomen is soft and non-distended, with mild diffuse tenderness but no guarding or rebound. Bowel sounds are hyperactive. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Recommendation for oral rehydration therapyAnswer
- BEmpirical treatment with oral ciprofloxacin
- CSurgical consultation for abdominal exploration
- DMeasurement of arterial blood gas
- EMeasurement of serum thyroid-stimulating hormone
Answer
The most appropriate next step is recommendation for oral rehydration therapy.
The correct answer is recommendation for oral rehydration therapy because this patient presents with uncomplicated acute watery diarrhea. In the absence of warning signs such as high fever, bloody stools, severe abdominal pain, or signs of volume depletion, the most likely etiology is a self-limiting viral infection. The mainstay of treatment is supportive care to maintain hydration.
Step-by-Step Solution
Key Concept
Management of acute uncomplicated gastroenteritis centers on supportive care and oral rehydration therapy, avoiding unnecessary laboratory testing and broad-spectrum antibiotics.