A 53-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her husband due to a severe headache, blurred vision, and progressive confusion over the past 24 hours. Her past medical history is significant for diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis diagnosed three years ago. Two weeks ago, she was started on oral prednisone for worsening joint pain and skin tightness. Her temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure is 225/115 mmHg, and pulse is 102/min. Physical examination shows thickened, tight skin over her face, forearms, and chest. Neurological examination reveals a confused patient but is negative for focal motor or sensory deficits. Fundoscopy demonstrates bilateral flame-shaped hemorrhages and papilledema. Laboratory studies show:
| Test | Result |
|---|---|
| Hemoglobin | 9.1 g/dL |
| Platelets | 85,000/mm³ |
| Leukocytes | 8,400/mm³ |
| Creatinine | 3.2 mg/dL |
A peripheral blood smear demonstrates 3-5 schistocytes per high-power field. Her baseline creatinine one month ago was 0.8 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the pharmacologic management of this patient's condition?
- AIntravenous labetalol
- BIntravenous ceftriaxone and vancomycin
- Oral captoprilAnswer
- DPlasma exchange
- EIntravenous methylprednisolone