A 38-year-old man seeks evaluation at an outpatient clinic for a four-month history of unremitting, voluminous watery diarrhea accompanied by a weight loss, intermittent low-grade fevers, and diffuse abdominal cramping. He has a history of advanced human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection but discontinued his antiretroviral therapy two years ago due to medication fatigue. His last known CD4+ T-lymphocyte count was . Vital signs show a temperature of , blood pressure of , and heart rate of . Physical examination is notable for temporal wasting and mild, diffuse abdominal tenderness without rebound or guarding. Laboratory studies reveal a mild normocytic anemia and an elevated serum alkaline phosphatase level. Stool studies are negative for ova, parasites, and *Clostridioides difficile* toxin. An esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) is performed. Biopsy of the descending duodenum reveals blunted villi and a dense infiltration of the lamina propria with enlarged, foamy macrophages. These macrophages stain strongly positive with periodic acid-Schiff (PAS). An acid-fast bacillus (AFB) stain of the tissue is subsequently performed and is positive. Based on these findings, which of the following is the most appropriate targeted pharmacotherapy for this patient's gastrointestinal condition?
- Clarithromycin and ethambutolAnswer
- BIntravenous ceftriaxone followed by oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
- CIntravenous ganciclovir
- DStrict lifelong adherence to a gluten-free diet
- EOral vancomycin