A 28-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 5-day history of right knee swelling, left heel pain, and redness in both eyes. He reports no recent trauma. Four weeks ago, he had a diarrheal illness that resolved spontaneously after days. His temperature is (), blood pressure is mmHg, and pulse is 84/min. Physical examination shows a moderately effused, warm, and tender right knee. There is marked tenderness to palpation at the insertion of the left Achilles tendon. The conjunctivae are injected bilaterally. Arthrocentesis of the right knee yields synovial fluid with a leukocyte count of ( neutrophils). Gram stain of the fluid shows no organisms, and polarized light microscopy reveals no crystals. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacotherapy for this patient's current symptoms?
- AIntravenous cefotaxime
- BOral ciprofloxacin
- COral febuxostat
- Oral indomethacinAnswer
- EOral sulfasalazine