A -year-old male is admitted to the hospital due to progressive fatigue, abdominal distension, and reduced urine output over the past five days. He has a history of cirrhosis secondary to nonalcoholic steatohepatitis. One week ago, his outpatient diuretic regimen of spironolactone and furosemide was increased to manage worsening ascites. Vital signs on admission show a temperature of (), blood pressure of , and pulse of . Physical examination reveals shifting dullness and trace bilateral pedal edema, but no signs of asterixis or hepatic encephalopathy.
Laboratory studies on admission reveal:
- Serum sodium:
- Serum creatinine: (baseline one month ago)
- Blood urea nitrogen:
- Urinalysis: normal, with a fractional excretion of sodium (FENa) less than
- Ascitic fluid analysis:
All diuretics are immediately discontinued, and he is treated with an intravenous infusion of albumin () for hours. Re-evaluation today shows a serum creatinine of . Renal ultrasound shows normal-sized kidneys with no hydronephrosis. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Initiation of midodrine and octreotide therapyAnswer
- BIntravenous administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics
- CRestarting intravenous furosemide therapy
- DTherapeutic large-volume paracentesis
- EInitiation of continuous renal replacement therapy