A hospital medicine team is evaluating a 65-year-old woman on the third day of her admission for acute cholangitis. On presentation to the hospital, she had a temperature of 39.2°C (102.6°F), pronounced scleral icterus, and right upper quadrant abdominal tenderness. Two sets of blood cultures were drawn, and empiric intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam was initiated. Later that same day, she underwent an uncomplicated endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) with sphincterotomy and successful extraction of a 1.5-cm common bile duct stone.
Today, the patient is clinically much improved. Her temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), her abdominal pain has entirely resolved, and her leukocyte count has decreased from 18,000/mm³ on admission to 8,500/mm³. The admission blood cultures are now growing *Escherichia coli* in both sets. The laboratory's antimicrobial susceptibility report indicates the isolate is resistant to ampicillin but susceptible to ceftriaxone, ciprofloxacin, meropenem, and piperacillin-tazobactam.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in pharmacotherapy for this patient?
- Change to intravenous ceftriaxoneAnswer
- BContinue intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- CChange to intravenous meropenem
- DAdd intravenous vancomycin
- EDiscontinue all antimicrobial therapy