A 54-year-old man is evaluated in the hospital on day 4 of admission for a pyogenic liver abscess. He initially presented with a 3-day history of high fever, right-sided abdominal pain, and malaise. An abdominal computed tomography scan on admission revealed a 6-cm multiloculated fluid collection in the right hepatic lobe. He underwent prompt ultrasound-guided percutaneous catheter drainage, and empiric intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam was initiated.
Today, the patient reports significant improvement and is tolerating a regular diet. His temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure is 122/78 mm Hg, and pulse is 76/min. The percutaneous drain output has decreased to less than 10 mL over the past 24 hours. Blood cultures drawn at admission are sterile. Cultures from the abscess fluid have grown *Klebsiella pneumoniae*. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing indicates the organism is resistant to ampicillin, but susceptible to amoxicillin-clavulanate, ceftriaxone, and ciprofloxacin.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the antimicrobial management of this patient?
- Transition to oral amoxicillin-clavulanateAnswer
- BContinue intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- CTransition to oral ampicillin
- DAdd intravenous fluconazole
- EDiscontinue all antimicrobial therapy