Family members bring a 68-year-old male to the emergency room due to a progressive decline in his mental status over the last 72 hours. He has a past medical history of normal pressure hydrocephalus, which was treated with the placement of a ventriculoperitoneal (VP) shunt four years ago. According to his relatives, he has been reporting severe, diffuse headaches and experienced two episodes of non-bilious vomiting this morning. Upon physical examination, the patient appears lethargic but localizes appropriately to painful stimuli. His temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and respiratory rate is and irregular. Funduscopic evaluation demonstrates bilateral blurring of the optic disc margins with absent venous pulsations. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Noncontrast CT scan of the headAnswer
- BLumbar puncture
- CIntravenous ceftriaxone and vancomycin
- DIntravenous dexamethasone
- EExploratory laparotomy