A 58-year-old woman comes to the clinic for a routine health maintenance examination. She states that she feels generally well but mentions experiencing a few episodes of light vaginal spotting over the past three weeks. She has not had a menstrual period since age 51. Her medical history is notable for severe plaque psoriasis, for which she takes oral cyclosporine. She has a 20-pack-year history of smoking but quit 18 years ago. Her last colonoscopy was 8 years ago, with normal findings. Her last cervical cancer screening was 3 years ago and was negative. She has not received any immunizations in the past 5 years. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- AOrder a fecal immunochemical test (FIT)
- BAdminister the live-attenuated measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine
- CSchedule a low-dose chest computed tomography (LDCT) scan
- Perform an endometrial biopsyAnswer
- EPerform cervical cytology with human papillomavirus (HPV) co-testing
Answer
Perform an endometrial biopsy
The correct answer is to perform an endometrial biopsy. Although this patient presents for a routine health maintenance visit, any instance of postmenopausal bleeding is a red-flag symptom that requires prompt diagnostic evaluation to rule out endometrial cancer. An endometrial biopsy (or a transvaginal ultrasound to measure endometrial thickness) is the required next step. In primary care and preventive medicine, the transition from routine asymptomatic screening to urgent diagnostic evaluation is a critical triage step; routine screenings must never delay the workup of a potential malignancy.
Step-by-Step Solution
Key Concept
Triage of Clinical Preventive Services and Evaluation of Postmenopausal Bleeding