A -year-old right-handed woman is evaluated in the neurosurgical intensive care unit for new-onset neurological deficits. Six days ago, she underwent successful surgical clipping of a ruptured left middle cerebral artery aneurysm. Her postoperative course had been uncomplicated, and she was alert and fully oriented this morning. Over the past hour, the nurse noted that the patient developed right-sided hemiparesis and severe expressive aphasia.
Her temperature is (), heart rate is , blood pressure is , and respirations are . A stat noncontrast head computed tomography scan shows expected postsurgical changes with no evidence of new hemorrhage, cerebral edema, or hydrocephalus. Continuous electroencephalography reveals no epileptiform activity.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AIntravenous administration of nimodipine
- BTransfer to the angiography suite for mechanical thrombectomy
- Intravenous administration of norepinephrineAnswer
- DInitiation of therapeutic hyperventilation
- ELumbar puncture for cerebrospinal fluid analysis