A 38-year-old woman is evaluated in the emergency department due to the sudden onset of a severe headache that began 4 hours ago. She describes it as the "worst headache I have ever had in my entire life." She has no significant past medical history and takes no medications. Vital signs are temperature 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure 150/90 mmHg, heart rate 92/min, and respiratory rate 16/min. On physical examination, she is awake, alert, and oriented (Glasgow Coma Scale score 15). Cranial nerve function is intact, and there are no focal sensory or motor deficits in the extremities. She exhibits marked photophobia and nuchal rigidity. A computed tomography scan of the head without contrast reveals no intracranial abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AMagnetic resonance imaging of the brain
- BEmpiric administration of ceftriaxone and vancomycin
- Lumbar punctureAnswer
- DCatheter-based cerebral angiography
- EAdministration of sumatriptan and discharge