A 44-year-old man visits the urgent care clinic complaining of a 3-day history of progressive left lower quadrant abdominal pain. He reports mild nausea but has not vomited. His last bowel movement was yesterday and was normal in consistency. He has no significant past medical history and takes no medications. His temperature is (), blood pressure is , and pulse is . Physical examination reveals focal tenderness to palpation in the left lower quadrant without rigidity, guarding, or rebound tenderness. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of . A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrast demonstrates wall thickening of the sigmoid colon with adjacent pericolonic fat stranding. There is no evidence of an abscess, stricture, fistula, or free intraperitoneal air. He is able to tolerate oral fluids without difficulty. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Discharge home with instructions for a clear liquid diet and clinical observationAnswer
- BPrescription for a 7-day course of oral amoxicillin-clavulanate
- CHospital admission for intravenous ertapenem therapy
- DReferral for an immediate diagnostic colonoscopy
- EConsultation for CT-guided percutaneous fluid drainage