A 26-year-old man is hospitalized after sustaining a closed mid-shaft fracture of the right femur in a motor vehicle collision. Due to multiple life-threatening cases in the operating room, his fracture is temporarily managed with skeletal traction. On the second day of hospitalization, he becomes acutely confused and agitated. His temperature is 38.3°C (100.9°F), blood pressure is 118/76 mmHg, heart rate is 122/min, and respiratory rate is 28/min. Pulse oximetry shows an oxygen saturation of 86% on room air. Physical examination reveals a non-blanching petechial rash over the anterior chest, axillae, and conjunctivae. Lung auscultation demonstrates bilateral scattered crackles. Which of the following interventions during the initial 24 hours of admission would have most effectively decreased the risk of this patient's current complication?
- Early operative internal fixation of the femur fractureAnswer
- BInitiation of prophylactic low-molecular-weight heparin
- CConservative management with prolonged skeletal traction
- DAdministration of prophylactic intravenous corticosteroids
- EEmpiric administration of broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics