A 76-year-old man is hospitalized for symptomatic anemia. His past medical history is significant for severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), hypertension, and ischemic cardiomyopathy with a left ventricular ejection fraction of 35%. His hemoglobin is 6.4 g/dL. A transfusion of packed red blood cells is initiated. Two hours later, he develops acute shortness of breath and a cough producing frothy sputum.
Vital signs:
Temperature: 37.2°C (99.0°F)
Blood pressure: 170/95 mmHg
Pulse: 115/min
Respiratory rate: 26/min
Pulse oximetry: 88% on room air
Physical examination reveals markedly elevated jugular venous pressure. Lung auscultation demonstrates bilateral basilar crackles and diffuse expiratory wheezes. Cardiac auscultation reveals an S3 gallop and a regular tachycardia.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- ADiscontinue the transfusion and administer inhaled albuterol
- BPause the transfusion and administer oral acetaminophen
- Discontinue the transfusion and administer intravenous furosemideAnswer
- DDiscontinue the transfusion and administer intravenous normal saline
- EDiscontinue the transfusion and administer intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam