A 24-year-old primigravida at 24 weeks gestation comes to the clinic reporting frequent, unprovoked nosebleeds and a new rash on her lower extremities over the past two days. She feels fetal movement and has no other complaints. Temperature is (), blood pressure is , and heart rate is . Physical examination reveals scattered, non-blanching, pinpoint macules over her shins and ankles. The uterus is consistent in size with a 24-week gestation, and fetal heart rate is with normal variability.
Laboratory results are as follows:
| Laboratory Test | Result |
|---|---|
| Hemoglobin | |
| White blood cell count | |
| Platelet count | |
| Prothrombin time | |
| Partial thromboplastin time | |
| Creatinine |
A peripheral blood smear demonstrates a few enlarged platelets with normal morphology and a lack of schistocytes. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- ABroad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics
- BReassurance and routine prenatal care
- Administration of systemic corticosteroidsAnswer
- DPlasma exchange
- EImmediate induction of labor
Answer
Administration of systemic corticosteroids
The correct answer is administration of systemic corticosteroids. This patient presents with isolated severe thrombocytopenia and mucocutaneous bleeding (epistaxis, petechiae) at 24 weeks gestation, which is characteristic of primary immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). ITP is an autoimmune condition involving IgG antibodies against platelet membrane antigens (e.g., GpIIb/IIIa). In pregnancy, treatment for ITP is indicated when the platelet count is below or if there is clinically significant bleeding. Systemic corticosteroids (such as oral prednisone) or intravenous immune globulin (IVIG) are the safest and most effective first-line therapies.
Step-by-Step Solution
Key Concept
Management of immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) in pregnancy