A 27-year-old primigravida at 16 weeks gestation is brought to the clinic by her partner due to worsening mood. Over the last four weeks, she has felt profoundly sad, lacks energy, and sleeps up to 14 hours a day. She expresses deep guilt and says she feels "empty." Her partner notes that during her second year of college, she experienced a distinct two-week period where she slept only three hours a night, spoke at an unusually rapid pace, and started three different business ventures that rapidly failed. That prior episode resolved without hospitalization. She currently takes a daily prenatal vitamin and an over-the-counter dextromethorphan syrup for a chronic post-viral cough. Vital signs are within normal limits. Recent laboratory testing shows a thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level of 1.1 mU/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in pharmacologic management?
- AInitiate levothyroxine
- BInitiate sertraline
- Initiate lurasidoneAnswer
- DInitiate phenelzine
- EReassure the patient that these are normal physiologic changes