A -year-old man comes to the clinic with a -week history of worsening joint pain, morning stiffness lasting over an hour, and low-grade fevers. He also reports sharp, left-sided chest pain that worsens with deep inspiration and coughing. His medical history includes heart failure with reduced ejection fraction, hypertension, and bipolar disorder. Five months ago, he was hospitalized for a heart failure exacerbation, and his medical regimen was adjusted. Current medications include carvedilol, spironolactone, hydralazine, isosorbide dinitrate, and lithium. Temperature is (), blood pressure is , and heart rate is . Physical examination reveals a pleural friction rub at the left lung base. There is symmetric swelling, warmth, and tenderness of the proximal interphalangeal joints and wrists bilaterally. Laboratory testing shows normal C3 and C4 complement levels, and a positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) titer of with a homogeneous pattern. Anti-double-stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA) antibodies are negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AInitiate intravenous furosemide and noninvasive positive pressure ventilation
- BOrder blood cultures and start empiric vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam
- CReassure the patient that the antinuclear antibody result is a false positive and prescribe acetaminophen
- Discontinue hydralazine and monitor for symptom resolutionAnswer
- EDiscontinue lithium and initiate monotherapy with citalopram