A 32-year-old male accountant presents to the psychiatric clinic for evaluation of worsening anxiety. For the past 6 months, he has been overwhelmingly preoccupied with the intrusive thought that he might accidentally send confidential client financial data to the wrong email address. To prevent this, he spends 2 to 3 hours every evening repeatedly checking his outbox and reading every sent email multiple times. He recognizes these thoughts are irrational and excessive, but he states he cannot stop the checking behavior. His performance at work has declined significantly, and his manager has recently issued a formal warning. He was diagnosed with atypical depression by another provider and started on phenelzine 2 weeks ago; however, he abruptly stopped taking it 5 days ago due to severe orthostatic hypotension. He asks the physician to provide a medical note explaining his diagnosis to his employer to prevent termination.
Which of the following are the most appropriate next steps in the management of this patient? (Select 2)
- Refer the patient for exposure and response prevention therapyAnswer
- Postpone the initiation of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor for at least 9 more daysAnswer
- CInitiate fluvoxamine immediately to aggressively target his compulsive behaviors
- DCall the patient's manager directly to explain the diagnosis and advocate for leniency
- EDiagnose brief psychotic disorder and begin treatment with a second-generation antipsychotic