A 54-year-old woman is hospitalized for induction chemotherapy for acute myeloid leukemia. Seven days after completing the regimen, she develops a fever of 38.7°C (101.7°F). Her absolute neutrophil count is 150/mm³. Blood and urine cultures are drawn, and she is started on empiric intravenous cefepime. Five days later, she continues to have daily fevers up to 38.9°C (102.0°F). She is hemodynamically stable. She has no new symptoms. Physical examination reveals a clean, non-tender central venous catheter insertion site. There are no skin rashes, oral ulcers, or abnormal breath sounds. Her absolute neutrophil count is now 80/mm³. Blood cultures drawn on the first day of fever and repeat cultures drawn 48 hours ago show no growth. A chest radiograph is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AAdd intravenous vancomycin
- Add intravenous caspofunginAnswer
- CSwitch cefepime to meropenem
- DRemove the central venous catheter
- EAdminister granulocyte colony-stimulating factor