A 61-year-old man comes to the emergency department due to severe right knee pain and swelling that began abruptly overnight. He reports that the pain is excruciating, and he is unable to bear weight on the right leg. His medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus, chronic kidney disease (stage 3a), and a recent hospitalization two weeks ago for a chronic obstructive pulmonary disease exacerbation. His temperature is 38.2°C (100.8°F), blood pressure is 142/88 mm Hg, and pulse is 98/min. Physical examination reveals a markedly swollen, erythematous, and warm right knee. Range of motion is severely limited by pain. There are no skin breaks or ulcerations around the joint. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Perform arthrocentesis of the right kneeAnswer
- BInitiate intravenous vancomycin and ceftriaxone
- CMeasure serum uric acid concentration
- DObtain magnetic resonance imaging of the right knee
- EPrescribe high-dose oral ibuprofen and advise joint rest