A 28-year-old otherwise healthy man is evaluated in an urgent care clinic for a 2-day history of frequent, watery diarrhea, abdominal cramping, and nausea. He states that his symptoms began approximately 24 hours after consuming homemade chicken salad at a community picnic. He has not noticed any blood or mucus in his stool. His past medical history is unremarkable, and he takes no medications. His temperature is 37.7°C (99.9°F), blood pressure is 118/76 mm Hg, pulse is 88/min, and respiratory rate is 14/min. Physical examination reveals slightly dry oral mucosa. The abdomen is soft and non-distended with mild, diffuse tenderness to palpation but no guarding or rebound. Bowel sounds are hyperactive. A rapid stool multiplex polymerase chain reaction panel is positive for *Salmonella enterica*. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Oral rehydration therapy aloneAnswer
- BOral ciprofloxacin therapy
- COral azithromycin therapy
- DIntravenous ceftriaxone therapy
- EOral metronidazole therapy