A -year-old man is evaluated on postoperative day following a partial colectomy for recurrent uncomplicated diverticulitis. Over the past hours, he has developed a fever, tachycardia, and new-onset copious, watery diarrhea. He reports mild, diffuse abdominal cramping but no nausea or vomiting. His current medications include intravenous fluids, prophylactic subcutaneous enoxaparin, and patient-controlled analgesia. He received a standard course of perioperative intravenous cefoxitin. His temperature is (), blood pressure is , and pulse is . On physical examination, the abdomen is mildly distended and diffusely tender to deep palpation, without rigidity or rebound tenderness. The surgical incision is clean, dry, and intact.
Laboratory studies show:
Leukocyte count:
Arterial blood gas (room air):
pH:
pCO :
HCO :
A stool enzyme immunoassay (EIA) is positive for *Clostridioides difficile* toxins A and B.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Initiate oral vancomycinAnswer
- BInitiate intravenous vancomycin
- CInitiate intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- DAdminister intravenous sodium bicarbonate
- EObtain a portable chest radiograph