An -year-old man arrives at the emergency department accompanied by his son, who reports that his father has become increasingly confused and clumsy over the past month. The patient has a history of a mechanical mitral valve replacement, for which he takes warfarin, as well as hypertension.
On examination, the patient is lethargic but arousable. He exhibits a left-sided facial droop and strength in his left upper and lower extremities.
Laboratory analysis reveals an International Normalized Ratio (INR) of .
A non-contrast computed tomography (CT) scan of the head reveals a -cm thick crescent-shaped, hypodense extra-axial fluid collection over the right frontoparietal cortex causing a -mm leftward midline shift.
What is the most appropriate sequence of interventions for this patient?
- Four-factor prothrombin complex concentrate and intravenous vitamin K followed by burr hole craniostomyAnswer
- BIntravenous fresh frozen plasma followed by decompressive hemicraniectomy
- CIntravenous dexamethasone therapy followed by admission to the intensive care unit for observation
- DIntravenous protamine sulfate followed by open craniotomy for hematoma evacuation
- EImmediate cessation of warfarin followed by serial neuroimaging every 6 hours