A 72-year-old man undergoes an elective thoracic endovascular aortic repair (TEVAR) for an expanding descending thoracic aortic aneurysm. The procedure is technically successful, and no endoleaks are identified on the final angiogram. Four hours after arriving in the intensive care unit, the patient reports a new-onset inability to move his legs. His blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, and his heart rate is 86/min. Physical examination reveals 0/5 motor strength in both lower extremities and flaccid muscle tone. There is a complete loss of pain and temperature sensation below the umbilicus. However, proprioception and vibratory sensation are fully preserved in the bilateral toes. Bilateral femoral, popliteal, and pedal pulses are 2+ and symmetric. In addition to optimizing systemic mean arterial pressure, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AEmergent magnetic resonance imaging of the spine
- BIntravenous administration of high-dose methylprednisolone
- Insertion of a lumbar cerebrospinal fluid drainAnswer
- DImmediate initiation of a continuous heparin infusion
- ECollection of blood cultures and administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics