A -year-old woman is evaluated in the hospital on the third day of her admission. She originally presented to the emergency department with a -day history of severe right upper quadrant abdominal pain, jaundice, and a temperature of (). She was diagnosed with acute ascending cholangitis and promptly started on empirical intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam. An emergent endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) was performed, which successfully cleared a stone from the common bile duct. Today, the patient is completely asymptomatic, afebrile for the past , and tolerating a regular diet. Blood cultures drawn on admission are now positive for *Escherichia coli*. Susceptibility testing reveals the organism is susceptible to ceftriaxone, ciprofloxacin, and piperacillin-tazobactam, and is resistant to ampicillin. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the pharmacologic management of this patient?
- Switch to oral ciprofloxacinAnswer
- BContinue intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- CSwitch to intravenous meropenem
- DSwitch to intravenous ceftriaxone
- EAdd intravenous vancomycin to the current regimen