Question

Difficulty: EasyHematology and Oncology

Match each patient's clinical presentation to the most likely underlying hematologic or oncologic diagnosis.

  • A 28-year-old woman with a history of heavy menstrual bleeding presents with fatigue and a craving to chew ice. Laboratory testing reveals a microcytic anemia with a markedly low serum ferritin.Iron deficiency anemia
  • A 65-year-old man presents with severe lower back pain, constipation, and worsening fatigue. Laboratory testing reveals hypercalcemia, an elevated serum creatinine, and a normocytic anemia.Multiple myeloma
  • A 40-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus presents with new-onset jaundice and dark urine. Laboratory testing shows a normocytic anemia, an elevated reticulocyte count, and a positive direct antiglobulin (Coombs) test.Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
  • A 25-year-old man presents with sudden-onset fatigue and dark urine three days after starting trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for a skin infection. His peripheral blood smear reveals bite cells.Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency

Answer

The presentations appropriately match as follows: the young woman with heavy menses and pica has iron deficiency anemia; the older man with bone pain, renal failure, and hypercalcemia has multiple myeloma; the lupus patient with a positive Coombs test has autoimmune hemolytic anemia; and the patient taking sulfa drugs with bite cells has G6PD deficiency.
Each clinical vignette provides classic, unequivocal features of a specific hematologic disorder allowing for straightforward diagnosis based on high-yield associations.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the 28-year-old woman's clinical vignette.
Identified chronic blood loss (menses) resulting in microcytic anemia, low ferritin, and pica.
These findings are the definitive textbook presentation of iron deficiency anemia.
2
Analyze the 65-year-old man's clinical vignette.
Identified the CRAB criteria (hyperCalcemia, Renal failure, Anemia, Bone pain).
These combined end-organ damage findings in an older adult point directly to multiple myeloma.
3
Analyze the 40-year-old woman's clinical vignette.
Identified an autoimmune condition (SLE) causing hemolysis confirmed by an elevated reticulocyte count and a positive direct antiglobulin test.
A positive direct Coombs test in the setting of hemolysis indicates an immune-mediated destruction of red blood cells, diagnostic of autoimmune hemolytic anemia.
4
Analyze the 25-year-old man's clinical vignette.
Identified a specific oxidative drug trigger (trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole) leading to hemolysis and the formation of bite cells.
Oxidative damage causing bite cells (from splenic macrophage removal of Heinz bodies) is highly specific for G6PD deficiency.

Key Concept

Classic presentations of highly tested hematologic and oncologic disorders
Rate this question