A 72-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her husband due to a progressive physical decline over the past week. She has a history of persistent depressive disorder since her late 40s and was diagnosed with a superimposed major depressive episode 6 months ago following her husband's stroke. During the current episode, she sequentially failed 8-week trials of sertraline and venlafaxine at maximum tolerated doses. Four weeks ago, her psychiatrist initiated a combination of fluoxetine 40 mg and bupropion 150 mg daily. Over the past 7 days, she has entirely refused to eat or drink, stating that her "stomach has been replaced by a block of ice" and that eating is a sin. On examination, she is mute, exhibits severe psychomotor retardation, and avoids eye contact. Her temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), pulse is 110/min, and blood pressure is 105/65 mm Hg. Her mucous membranes are extremely dry, and skin turgor is poor. Laboratory results show a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 48 mg/dL and a serum creatinine of 1.9 mg/dL (baseline 4 weeks ago was 0.8 mg/dL). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- ADiscontinue the current antidepressants and initiate monotherapy with olanzapine
- BDiscontinue the current antidepressants due to lack of efficacy and initiate duloxetine
- Admit for medical stabilization and initiate electroconvulsive therapyAnswer
- DDiscontinue the current antidepressants and initiate tranylcypromine
- EMaintain the current regimen and screen for a history of past hypomania or mania